tkbslc wrote in post #14965905
That is not true. We all know that a 300mm at f22 will not have larger blur disc at infinity than a 50mm f1.4. FL is the determinant only in that it increases the aperture size at a given f-ratio.
My math is correct when talking about a single sensor size. Blur is just (magnification x focal length) / f-stop. You can get the same magnification by changing distance. Focal length/f-stop is just the aperture size. So preserving the same magnification and using the same aperture size, the blur will be identical. For example, 50mm f2 at 2m subject distance has the same blur as 100mm f4 at 4m distance because both have the same subject magnification and aperture size.
However, I had not realized how large a factor CoC as a result of enlargement was until reading through those equations. If you kept the enlargement factor the same, then it is only a function of aperture. SO that would mean printing the APS-C shot at about 5x7 while the FF shot gets printed 8.5x11.
However, when preserving output size, your numbers are correct. When moving between sensor sizes, the difference in blur is nearly double on FF.
One thing to consider is that for near background the DOF is more important than the "infinity blur".
Maybe I should have stated it differently...far field blur is directly related to FL, when the f/stop is the same on both lenses.
There was a discussion some months back, and tonylong correctly stated,
"Note the equation in Post #1:
D=((f2-f1)*d*F1*F2)/(i*f1*F2-i*f2*F1)
Note that in the Numerator part of the equation, you have the two apertures at the different focal lengths subtracting, which when they are both the same, you get zero, then when you multiply the rest of the variables you still end up with 0.
So, if the equation is accurate, whenever you are consider matching apertures with two focal lengths, the longer lens always wins. 'Course we understand that as far as DOF, but for this discussion I'd say it is of interest..."