Ok, I now have a Sigma 18-50 2.8 EX which has a constant aperture of 2.8 across the range of the zoom, but why?
The effective aperture of a lens is "The diameter of the beam of light incident upin a lens parallel to the lens axis, which completely fills the aperture of the diaphragm, is termed the effective diameter of the aperture, or the effective aperture of the lens". (Ilford Manual of Photography 5th Edition, Page 61)
Also, "The number N obtained by dividing the focal length f of a lens byt the diameter d of the effective aperture is referred to as the relative aperture of the diaphragm. Expressed mathematically: N = f/d. Thus, a lens with an effective aperture 1 inch in diameter and a focal length of 8 inches, has a relative aperture of 8/1, i.e., 8." (Ilford Manual of Photography 5th Edition, Page 62)
So, the 50mm f1.8 lens has an effective aperture of 27.8mm.
With my 18-50mm lens, this means that the maximum the lens opens up is 17.9mm. If that's the case, then that means it could have a relative aperture of f1.0 at 18mm - why doesn't it?
The attitude seems to be that if a zoom doesn't have a constant maximum relative aperture that you're losing out on the long end, but in fact, by not having a constant aperture, you're losing out massively on the wide end.
Please can someone explain this to me.

